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I don’t know but as said garp did anounce the pass rate

I see this link with the pass rate but not the passed candidates list https://www.300hours.com/articles/the-complete-beginners-guide-to-the-financial-risk-management-frm-qualification#

Hi Nicole, I just click on the link and I find out that the mock is available even if I have just the free acount. Though, I did not do this mock as I just discover it. May be a bug in your system that allow free user to access the mock? You can see attached a print screen.

Yes MSE is inconsistent.

Yes it was the same question (same parameters) but for one, a sqrt was needed for volatility calculation.

I do remember less than 15. Moreover, the probability than the stock price decreased less than 40 is 100% because less than 40 means decrease will be between 40% and 0%. But if decrease is less than 40% but above 15%, then the probability would be 62.5%. If the decrease is less than 15 (ie 15%...

Was the number 15 stated as stock price or a decline yield? If it's a decline yield, 62.5 would be the correct answer. But if it's a stock price, I would assume 0 and 40 are the stock price range possibility and then 37.5 would be correct. Otherwise, I find the question too much tricky.

Weird indeed. How do you find the 62.xx ?

For me, this is a uniform probability distribution : 3.Price declined from 0 to 40 linearly Ask : Probability( 15 or less is stockprice)= 62.XX P = (15 - 0) / (40 - 0) = 0.357

I had also the blue book but I did not pay attention if it was stock or future. But I am afraid it was a future as the price range was near 3000 (as I see on this thread). That said, I don’t remember if the price was really around 3000 or not.

As I remember it asked the disadvantages of ccp, especially when a party has the less incentive to monitor the risk of another party because of the ccp taking the risk. I answered moral hazard

In the swcheser notes : « The binomial model can also incorporate the unique characteristics of options on futures. Since futures contracts are costless to enter into, they are considered, in a risk-neutral setting, to be zero growth instruments. To account for this characteristic, ert is simply...

Was the binomial question related to a future but not stock? The risk neutral probability up should that case equal to (1 - D)/(U - D). I was trapped by the stress alhough I know it. This exam was really tricky.

I remember the question said price is expected to go 40% under price 1 or 40% above price 2. I consider these 2 prices as 2 strikes. I consider also 40% is a substantial move. That's why I chose strangle.

ohhh so that's it. It's the stress on D day.

I did: 350 * exp(-Rf*0.5) + 350 * exp(-Rf*1) and 700 * exp(-Rf*1) I did not divided Rf by two as it's a continuously compounding. I dont know, may be instead of 700 I wrote 750 or something else silly...

I did, but not I could not get it. Did you have the red or the blue book ? I had the blue one.

The same! I spent too much time on it. I did not want to give up as I told myself this is very very straightforward question. But no, I could not get the answer too. I really think there is may be an error in that question.

[Ke^(-Rf*t)]*[N(-d2)]-[(S-PV(Dividend))*N(-d1)] That is what I would have done. Only the stock price is impacted by the dividend. Since the dividend is not a Yield, its PV should be substracted to the Stock price. Or you have to calculate the equivalent Yield and in this case, the formula...

Akaike is asymptotically efficient, not SIC :)