Hello David,
I've been working through the 08 practice exam and have found many cases where the answers were using 1.96 for a single tailed 95% confidence. I'm not sure if it is GARP's mistake..
for example, for the calculation of LVaR, 08' Practice I #36
Consider an asset worth USD 1 million whose 95th percentile VaR is USD 100,000. Suppose the bid-ask spread on the asset has a mean of USD .1 and stdev of USD .3. What is the 95t% liquidity adjusted VaR?
The answer takes 100,000 + 1mm .5(.1+.3(1.96))
I'm sure 1.96 is wrong for a one-tailed 95% test but for some reason I've seen this mistake all over the 08' practice... since these exam questions actually come from past exams, this is really frustrating because if I were to use 1.64, there won't be any choices that will match the answer..
Thanks you.
I've been working through the 08 practice exam and have found many cases where the answers were using 1.96 for a single tailed 95% confidence. I'm not sure if it is GARP's mistake..
for example, for the calculation of LVaR, 08' Practice I #36
Consider an asset worth USD 1 million whose 95th percentile VaR is USD 100,000. Suppose the bid-ask spread on the asset has a mean of USD .1 and stdev of USD .3. What is the 95t% liquidity adjusted VaR?
The answer takes 100,000 + 1mm .5(.1+.3(1.96))
I'm sure 1.96 is wrong for a one-tailed 95% test but for some reason I've seen this mistake all over the 08' practice... since these exam questions actually come from past exams, this is really frustrating because if I were to use 1.64, there won't be any choices that will match the answer..
Thanks you.