sudeepdoon
New Member
Hi David,
I was wondering that in a CDS :
The protection buyer gives a premiun to the protection seller for the protection; which is the profit for the protection seller in case there is no default. Where as in the case of a default the protection seller pays the buyer and the seller gets to have the defaulted security (In case the buyer owned it) so that he can claim recovery..
Now is the follow senario possible :
The premium for the CDS say is $20; and the underlier has a high seniority.. Now in the case of the credit event...
the protection seller pays the buyer the par value of the underlyer..say $90.. and gets the defaulted security.. on which he claims the recovery and because of high seniority the recovery is say : $80 (I guess its high but still...)
In this case the cash flow for the protection seller is : +20 -90 +80 = $10..i.e. a positive cash flow..
The quesions to you would be :
1. should this positive cash flow sound wierd ?
2. Can this be a valid market scenario?
3. If the possible recovery rate is so high .. would the premium be low... (because of low risk for the seller... may be this is the reason then for this abnormal seeming cash flow !)
I was wondering that in a CDS :
The protection buyer gives a premiun to the protection seller for the protection; which is the profit for the protection seller in case there is no default. Where as in the case of a default the protection seller pays the buyer and the seller gets to have the defaulted security (In case the buyer owned it) so that he can claim recovery..
Now is the follow senario possible :
The premium for the CDS say is $20; and the underlier has a high seniority.. Now in the case of the credit event...
the protection seller pays the buyer the par value of the underlyer..say $90.. and gets the defaulted security.. on which he claims the recovery and because of high seniority the recovery is say : $80 (I guess its high but still...)
In this case the cash flow for the protection seller is : +20 -90 +80 = $10..i.e. a positive cash flow..
The quesions to you would be :
1. should this positive cash flow sound wierd ?
2. Can this be a valid market scenario?
3. If the possible recovery rate is so high .. would the premium be low... (because of low risk for the seller... may be this is the reason then for this abnormal seeming cash flow !)