Hi @David Harper CFA FRM ,
I'm trying to understand the interactions between FRTB and CVA.
There's 'default risk charge' in FRTB, where the gross jump to default is calculated for each instrument. Is this an overlap of what CVA tries to address? If FRTB already requires capital to the held for counterparty credit risk, why is CVA still needed?
To add to the confusion, I've stumbled upon FRTB-CVA while researching on the internet. What is this actually?
Thanks heaps!
I'm trying to understand the interactions between FRTB and CVA.
There's 'default risk charge' in FRTB, where the gross jump to default is calculated for each instrument. Is this an overlap of what CVA tries to address? If FRTB already requires capital to the held for counterparty credit risk, why is CVA still needed?
To add to the confusion, I've stumbled upon FRTB-CVA while researching on the internet. What is this actually?
Thanks heaps!
I'm not clear myself on why FRTB IDR doesn't overlap with CVA charge (doesn't it?)?!