Current value of exposure in LGD comutation under FIRB

hemmu23

New Member
In the equation LGD* = LGD x (E* / E) it is mentioned that 'E' is the
current value of the exposure (i.e. cash lent or securities lent or
posted).

First query
1) Is the Effective loss given default % (LGD*) dependent on exposure
or a combination of the type of facility and collateralised portion of
facility.

Second query
2) What will be the current value of exposure (E) of a fund based
facility of $ 1 M (e.g. Overdraft) which is 100% undrawn.
 
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