default correlation and 1st to default basket

ajsa

New Member
Hi David,

I wonder why high default correlation can make 1st to default basket less risky? will the 1st default's possibility decrease with high correlation?

thanks.
 

David Harper CFA FRM

David Harper CFA FRM
Subscriber
Hi asja,

the classic example is: assume PD = 1% and 10 credits

if 0.0 correlation, PD (1st to default) = 1-(1-1%)^10 = about 10%
but if 1.0 correlation, PD (1st) goes all the way down to 1%
similarly, -1.0 correlation ensures a 1st to default (!)

binomial distribution can show similarly for senior tranche...
more here with links: http://forum.bionicturtle.com/viewthread/1812/

David
 

ajsa

New Member
Hi David,

Could you explain how this is derived? "but if 1.0 correlation, PD (1st) goes all the way down to 1%"

Sorry I am a little slow. :) Thanks.
 

David Harper CFA FRM

David Harper CFA FRM
Subscriber
Hi asja,

if there is 1.0 correlation, there are only two outcomes:

* all default (together) with p = 99%, or
* none default with p = 1%

David
 

ajsa

New Member
Hi David,

If A and B's correlation is 1.
P(AB)=P(A|B)*P(B)=P(1)*P(B)=P(B)
P(AB)=P(B|A)*P(A)=P(1)*P(A)=P(A)=P(B)

So does it mean if A and B's correlation is 1, P(A) must equal to P(B)?

Thanks.
 

David Harper CFA FRM

David Harper CFA FRM
Subscriber
Hi ajsa,

This just plain stumps me because your logic (syllogism) sure looks fine yet the conclusion *appears* onerous
...e.g., my perfect correlation copula returns a Minimum(p(A), p(B) function which implies, for example, PD(A) = 5% and PD(B) = 8% such that PD(AB) = min() = 5%
...so I feel the conclusion that P(A) must = P(B) is too strict but i cannot justify by finding a fallacy??
uggg...apparently simple problems can be so hard

David
 

ajsa

New Member
Hi David,

Practically thinking, I feel it makes senese. If A and B's correlation is 1, that means they must happen at the same time so have the same prob..

Just my 2 cents.. Thanks..
 
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