Hello,
I took FRM Level 1 last year and I recall very vividly the difference between expected and actual level of question difficulty. I did a course with a specialised provider, their sample questions were easy, basically around CFA Level 1, so, having passed CFA Level 1, I felt quite confident. Then I had a look at GARP's (awfully compiled) textbooks and my blood froze - now that was seriously difficult stuff. I was a subscriber to BT at that time, and then, just like today, I found BT probably most out of touch with curriculum (or reality...) - I mean, what's the point of even publishing "this won't be tested in the exam" questions? (that's one), but two, many of the questions you write, probably with best intentions, are absurdly difficult and non-computable in exam conditions (you would probably like me to get specific here - let's get specific: Malz p23 q4 - am I expected to know the B-S formula by heart in the exam?; Malz p36 q5 - seriously? that is what GARP can ask me in the exam? what does part of the formula mean?; Malz p46 q5 - it requires calculating CFD (N), which, as David explained in his own post dated Jan 29 2012, permitted TA calculators cannot compute; pls note i referred to this one reading simply because it's one I have at hand).
This isn't to trash BT btw, I'm just thinking out loud here - on the other side of the distribution so to speak we have widely popular Schweser materials, whose questions are at most times ridiculously simple, e.g.
"With which of the following structured products would the investor most likely receive cash flows based on the performance of the underlying assets?
A) Covered bonds
B) Mortgage pass-through securities (MBSs)
C) Collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs)
D) Structured credit products
With regard to a three-tiered waterfall securitization, how would the excess spread most likely be distributed to the equity tranche?
A) A maximum amount based on an overcollateralization trigger.
B) Any residual amount after the accumulation trust is satisfied.
C) A coupon amount based on Libor, usually less than the mezzanine tranche.
D) A coupon amount based on Libor, usually less than the senior tranche."
I recall the actual L1 exam questions were quite difficult.
The limited number of available practice questions doesn't make this any easier - there are only a handful of past exams around, and that's that.
Suzanne, David, and fellow BT'ers - could you share you thoughts on that?
Kind regards,
Wojtek
I took FRM Level 1 last year and I recall very vividly the difference between expected and actual level of question difficulty. I did a course with a specialised provider, their sample questions were easy, basically around CFA Level 1, so, having passed CFA Level 1, I felt quite confident. Then I had a look at GARP's (awfully compiled) textbooks and my blood froze - now that was seriously difficult stuff. I was a subscriber to BT at that time, and then, just like today, I found BT probably most out of touch with curriculum (or reality...) - I mean, what's the point of even publishing "this won't be tested in the exam" questions? (that's one), but two, many of the questions you write, probably with best intentions, are absurdly difficult and non-computable in exam conditions (you would probably like me to get specific here - let's get specific: Malz p23 q4 - am I expected to know the B-S formula by heart in the exam?; Malz p36 q5 - seriously? that is what GARP can ask me in the exam? what does part of the formula mean?; Malz p46 q5 - it requires calculating CFD (N), which, as David explained in his own post dated Jan 29 2012, permitted TA calculators cannot compute; pls note i referred to this one reading simply because it's one I have at hand).
This isn't to trash BT btw, I'm just thinking out loud here - on the other side of the distribution so to speak we have widely popular Schweser materials, whose questions are at most times ridiculously simple, e.g.
"With which of the following structured products would the investor most likely receive cash flows based on the performance of the underlying assets?
A) Covered bonds
B) Mortgage pass-through securities (MBSs)
C) Collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs)
D) Structured credit products
With regard to a three-tiered waterfall securitization, how would the excess spread most likely be distributed to the equity tranche?
A) A maximum amount based on an overcollateralization trigger.
B) Any residual amount after the accumulation trust is satisfied.
C) A coupon amount based on Libor, usually less than the mezzanine tranche.
D) A coupon amount based on Libor, usually less than the senior tranche."
I recall the actual L1 exam questions were quite difficult.
The limited number of available practice questions doesn't make this any easier - there are only a handful of past exams around, and that's that.
Suzanne, David, and fellow BT'ers - could you share you thoughts on that?
Kind regards,
Wojtek