P1.T3.414. Mortgages and Mortgage-backed Securities (MBS, Basics)

Nicole Seaman

Director of CFA & FRM Operations
Staff member
Subscriber
Concept: These on-line quiz questions are not specifically linked to AIMs, but are instead based on recent sample questions. The difficulty level is a notch, or two notches, easier than bionicturtle.com's typical AIM-by-AIM question such that the intended difficulty level is nearer to an actual exam question. As these represent "easier than our usual" practice questions, they are well-suited to online simulation.

Questions:


414.1. A 30-year mortgage has an original balance of $160,000 and a fixed rate of 5.0% per annum with typical monthly payments. Which of the following is nearest to the principal reduced by the first month's mortgage payment?

a. Zero
b. $192.25
c. $666.67
d. $858.91


414.2. As Tuckman explains, "Mortgage borrowers have a prepayment option, that is, the option to pay the lender the outstanding principal at any time and be freed of the obligation to make further payments." In this way, prepayment risk is a defining characteristic of mortgages and mortgage-backed securities (MBS). Each of the following is true about prepayment risk and the prepayment option EXCEPT which is not?

a. The prepayment option implies negative convexity (in the price-rate relationship) at low yields
b. The prepayment option does NOT imply negative duration at low yields
c. It is realistic for a prepayment model to assume the conditional prepayment rat (CPR) is a decreasing function of rates; i.e., CPR increases as rates decrease
d. Due to the prepayment option, the duration of a mortgage-backed security (MBS) should be calculated analytically with Macaulay duration; i.e., as the weighted average maturity of mortgages in the pool where weights are present values of bond cash flows as a proportion of bond price


414.3. According to Tuckman, "A prepayment model uses loan characteristics and the economic environment (i.e., interest rates and sometimes housing prices) to predict prepayments. The most common practice identifies four components of prepayments, namely, in order of importance, refinancing, turnover, defaults, and curtailments. These components are typically modeled separately and their parameters estimated or calibrated so as to approximate available historical data." In regard to these four components of prepayment, each of the following is true EXCEPT which is false?

a. Refinancing is often modeled with an incentive function, for example I = [WAC - R] × WALS × A - K, that defines prepayments as a nondecreasing function of the incentive
b. Prepayments due to turnover are for the most part independent of interest rates, but there is an interaction that cannot be ignored: borrowers are less likely to move if they currently enjoy a below-market mortgage rate, a behavior known as the "lock-in effect"
c. Although defaults are never a source of prepayment since the principal is not recovered, mortgage modifications, on the other hand, are a source of prepayment in most cases
d. Curtailments are partial prepayments by a particular borrower. These tend to be most important when loans are older and balances are low. This driver of prepayments is modeled as a function of loan age and can, with only a couple of years remaining to maturity, rise to a CPR of about 5%.

Answers here:
 

David Harper CFA FRM

David Harper CFA FRM
Subscriber
Hi @Alex_1 A really excellent observation! GARP has released the 2015 draft FRM reading list to the training providers (EPPs, like ourselves). This draft includes a new reading and a new topic in T3: Mortgage-backed securities. Therefore, I decided to finish this new interactive set (this represents the final 3 questions in the newest set of 30 = 30% weight) with mortgages/MBS since it will (apparently) apply in 2015. Sorry for the confusion because your implication, of course, is correct: mortgages/MBS are not a T3 topic (and not really a P1 topic) in the upcoming November 2014 exam. Thanks!
 
Hi @Alex_1 A really excellent observation! GARP has released the 2015 draft FRM reading list to the training providers (EPPs, like ourselves). This draft includes a new reading and a new topic in T3: Mortgage-backed securities. Therefore, I decided to finish this new interactive set (this represents the final 3 questions in the newest set of 30 = 30% weight) with mortgages/MBS since it will (apparently) apply in 2015. Sorry for the confusion because your implication, of course, is correct: mortgages/MBS are not a T3 topic (and not really a P1 topic) in the upcoming November 2014 exam. Thanks!

Hi David,
So sorry to ask this.
As per what i could understand from tuckman, IO is like a security with a fixed set of cash flows. As rates fall and mortgages begin to prepay, the cash flows of an IO vanish. And it exhibits Negative DV01/ duration.

Now for Q. 414.2, W said 'The prepayment option does NOT imply negative duration at low yields'. Are we talking about the Pass through as a whole ..
Please elaborate a little on the same.

Also, please tell us some other sources we could get practise on this topic as tuckman has only 4-5 questions of which we already cover almost all here in these 3.
Just need a little practise on this topic cuz i dont get something thoroughly if i dont practise much..

Thanks
 

ShaktiRathore

Well-Known Member
Subscriber
Hi
Yes at low yields pass thru as a whole(principal+IO) does not imply positive convexity/negative duration because of the prepayment feature of the passthru. Normal coupon bond exhibits negative duration at lower yields too but due to introduction of prepay feature(you can think of pass thru=normal coupon bond with prepay feature) as in case of passthru the negative duration tilts towards positive which does not imply negative duration.
Thanks
 
Last edited:

Sweta1317

New Member
Hi Nicole
Why cant i see the answers to this forum..i have logged in my account..i wanted to see the solutions to these ..thank you.
 

Nicole Seaman

Director of CFA & FRM Operations
Staff member
Subscriber
Hi Nicole
Why cant i see the answers to this forum..i have logged in my account..i wanted to see the solutions to these ..thank you.
Hello @Sweta1317

The answers to the daily practice questions are for paid members only, who have purchased a study package. This is because these questions are part of our paid practice question sets. You can view all of our study packages here: https://www.bionicturtle.com/features-pricing/. :)

Thank you,

Nicole
 
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