hi all,
here's a question from FRM 2012:
1 million portfolio with equal investment in alpha and omega (annual).
Alpha -- expected return and volatility 5% and 20% respectively.
Omega -- expected return and volatility 7% and 25% respectively.
Assuming 252 trading days what's the daily max VAR?
The way I tackle this is I take 1.645 for 95% deviate, I also take correlation as equal to 1 as that's what maximises. Equal weight means 0.5 in the calculation of volatility of portfolio.
the question i have is this: I tweeked the annual volatility to daily at that point (after finding the volatility annual) with squared (1/252) but apparently it's wrong. The answer they give is that they make that tweek (annual to daily) in the beginning.
Conceptually they both should yield same but I suppose mathematically it'd be different. If so, what is the reason why we choose to tweek in the beginning rather than in the end.
Thanks
here's a question from FRM 2012:
1 million portfolio with equal investment in alpha and omega (annual).
Alpha -- expected return and volatility 5% and 20% respectively.
Omega -- expected return and volatility 7% and 25% respectively.
Assuming 252 trading days what's the daily max VAR?
The way I tackle this is I take 1.645 for 95% deviate, I also take correlation as equal to 1 as that's what maximises. Equal weight means 0.5 in the calculation of volatility of portfolio.
the question i have is this: I tweeked the annual volatility to daily at that point (after finding the volatility annual) with squared (1/252) but apparently it's wrong. The answer they give is that they make that tweek (annual to daily) in the beginning.
Conceptually they both should yield same but I suppose mathematically it'd be different. If so, what is the reason why we choose to tweek in the beginning rather than in the end.
Thanks