AbhishekJha
New Member
Hi,
In Chapter 8, definition of short hedge is given as - "A short forward or futures hedge is an agreement to sell in the future and is suitable for a hedger who owns (or will own) an asset that needs to be sold in the future. The classic example is a farmer who wants to lock in the sales price of a crop, for example, corn, so as to protect against its price decline. By owning the crop, the farmer effectively has a long position in corn". To offset the exposure or risk in this long position, the farmer enters into a corresponding short position, which is exactly what a short hedge accomplishes.
Question 1 : How does owning the crop or any commodity imply that Farmer has a Long Position by default? I understand in the example given with the definition, farmer will owm a Crop and hence he would like to hedge the Price in future which explains why he would like to get into a Short hedge however i want to understand how does simply owning a crop mean that someone has effectively a long position in that commodity?
In the same context there is an example provided - "To a key customer, the coffee producer promises to sell 100 pounds, on a date one year in the future, at $3.00 per pound. In this scenario, the producer is exposed to a future spot price increase, such that the appropriate hedge is a long position in coffee futures contracts. Because the sales price of $3.00 is predetermined, the underlying exposure is effectively a short position, such that the hedge instrument is a long position to offset."
Question 2 : In the above example, since the coffee producer already has a contract to sell coffee for $3.00 to a key customer(his selling price is locked at $3.00). I donot understand why this coffee producer should take a long position in this instance to cover the Price increase in the spot rate for Future(in 1 year's time that is) .
His Price for selling the Coffee is already locked at $3.00 with his key customer.
So, why would he need to hedge this contract by getting a Long future? His Price at $3.00 is locked and he is a coffee producer himself so whether price increases or decreases in future , he does NOT have to buy it in the market to provide it to his customer. He needs to lock in his price in 1 years time which he has done at $3.00 so what is the need for a long position here.
If the Price increases say to 5.00 how does it help the farmer have a long position here? If he wants to sell at 5.00, he will have to pay the 5.00 to buy it first so what is he achieving by getting into a long position with futures in this instance?
Could you help explain this with a simple explanation and with some details Plz.
Note : For the 2nd question, there is some explanation already provided in another thread however I didnot quiet understand the explanation there. It was bit confusing after having read the entire thread. Hence I have added this question as a new Post . The Thread I am referring to is https://forum.bionicturtle.com/threads/short-hedge-long-hedge.22341/#post-75291
Thanks,
Abhishek
In Chapter 8, definition of short hedge is given as - "A short forward or futures hedge is an agreement to sell in the future and is suitable for a hedger who owns (or will own) an asset that needs to be sold in the future. The classic example is a farmer who wants to lock in the sales price of a crop, for example, corn, so as to protect against its price decline. By owning the crop, the farmer effectively has a long position in corn". To offset the exposure or risk in this long position, the farmer enters into a corresponding short position, which is exactly what a short hedge accomplishes.
Question 1 : How does owning the crop or any commodity imply that Farmer has a Long Position by default? I understand in the example given with the definition, farmer will owm a Crop and hence he would like to hedge the Price in future which explains why he would like to get into a Short hedge however i want to understand how does simply owning a crop mean that someone has effectively a long position in that commodity?
In the same context there is an example provided - "To a key customer, the coffee producer promises to sell 100 pounds, on a date one year in the future, at $3.00 per pound. In this scenario, the producer is exposed to a future spot price increase, such that the appropriate hedge is a long position in coffee futures contracts. Because the sales price of $3.00 is predetermined, the underlying exposure is effectively a short position, such that the hedge instrument is a long position to offset."
Question 2 : In the above example, since the coffee producer already has a contract to sell coffee for $3.00 to a key customer(his selling price is locked at $3.00). I donot understand why this coffee producer should take a long position in this instance to cover the Price increase in the spot rate for Future(in 1 year's time that is) .
His Price for selling the Coffee is already locked at $3.00 with his key customer.
So, why would he need to hedge this contract by getting a Long future? His Price at $3.00 is locked and he is a coffee producer himself so whether price increases or decreases in future , he does NOT have to buy it in the market to provide it to his customer. He needs to lock in his price in 1 years time which he has done at $3.00 so what is the need for a long position here.
If the Price increases say to 5.00 how does it help the farmer have a long position here? If he wants to sell at 5.00, he will have to pay the 5.00 to buy it first so what is he achieving by getting into a long position with futures in this instance?
Could you help explain this with a simple explanation and with some details Plz.
Note : For the 2nd question, there is some explanation already provided in another thread however I didnot quiet understand the explanation there. It was bit confusing after having read the entire thread. Hence I have added this question as a new Post . The Thread I am referring to is https://forum.bionicturtle.com/threads/short-hedge-long-hedge.22341/#post-75291
Thanks,
Abhishek
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