Hi David
I just finished watching the video on the
"Standard Approach to Credit Risk under Basel II"
I wanted to know if the formula is:
Total Capital/ RWA (Credit Risk) + Market Risk+ Operational Risk > 8%
Why are we multiplying the exposure to the credit risk portion by 8%?
Isn't it a combination of all 3 risk factors? So wouldn't we need to know the market risk and operation risk portion of the denominator too before multiplying the exposure by 8%?
Thanks
Irving
I just finished watching the video on the
"Standard Approach to Credit Risk under Basel II"
I wanted to know if the formula is:
Total Capital/ RWA (Credit Risk) + Market Risk+ Operational Risk > 8%
Why are we multiplying the exposure to the credit risk portion by 8%?
Isn't it a combination of all 3 risk factors? So wouldn't we need to know the market risk and operation risk portion of the denominator too before multiplying the exposure by 8%?
Thanks
Irving