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100*[(10.0% - (1-10.0%)* 5.5%)/10.0%] give 55% not 50.55 Page number: 43 Chapter: 12

Hi, Couldn't find the most recent thread for this. I guess something is missing from this sentence "similarly, when the leverage is increased, if the increases the equity losses in case the asset returns are lower than the funding cost of debt" Page number: 41 Chapter: 12

Thanks for the compliment. Unfortunately, I didn't pass. My quartiles were 2233. I'll go again. @David Harper CFA FRM and @Nicole Seaman, you did a great job. This is also a very good platform

The exam was okay except that there was a digress from the expected. Off the top of my head, I could recall questions from the following topics: 1. ERM 2. Calculations on CAPM (given just the risk premium) 3. Difference between APT and CAPM 4. Ranking using treynor 5. Sharpe ratio 6. GARP code...

Hi @David Harper CFA FRM , There seem to be something off with the below calculations, this is from Chapter 10; page 9 of the study notes. The values of both the numerator and denominator are incorrect. Kindly look through. Thanks

Also, a 0.25 there; on pg 13 of same chapter

Hi David, Ch20-pg7, do we mean to say that the total advantage= 0.5%?

Hi @David Harper CFA FRM This is from T3-Ch10-Pg 11. We have nothing close to 1% or 3% in the question. Could it be an omission or am i missing something?

I am well too.:) I guess i didn't meet the expectation:oops:. i literally spent a while punching my calculator. It could be that i lost touch. Sadly, it's been a while i read. @David Harper CFA FRM, thanks for clarifying.

Hi @David Harper CFA FRM , Trust you are keeping safe. I found this on pg 19 of chapter 16 and it took me a while to get the answer using my calculator. Can i suggest that the denominator reads: 1+ (Rf* (T2 - T1)) instead

Hi @David Harper CFA FRM I don't seem to get the correct answer to the first calculation using my calculator. Also the 0.875 cash flow/coupon was omitted from the solution. VRM: Topic 9; page 7 Note: Fixed and published in v3.1

Also on page 9 of Topic 4 (same VRM). Taking a look at the below calculations, i am assuming that a negative sign was omitted the unconditional default probability formula.

Hi @David Harper CFA FRM , There seems to be some errors on page 32; Chapter 3 of the VRM note: The return is 2% i.e 0.02 not 20% (0.2) as used in the calculations; kindly review. Thanks. Update: Fixed in v1.3

Same as on page 19

Hi @David Harper CFA FRM , This was found on page 18, Chapter 1 of Topic 4- VRM study notes. It seem more like a typo to me and should instead be: ES\[ \alpha \](X) + ES\[ \alpha \](Y). Kindly reconfirm. Thanks.

Many thanks David. All clear now. The point on referencing is also noted.

Thanks @David Harper CFA FRM The explanation is quite clear. If \[ \sigma\;(diff) \] implies the difference between both standard deviations, the i guess it should be \[ \sqrt{4\;} \] - \[ \sqrt1 \] :confused:

Hi @David Harper CFA FRM I am having a hard time understanding the calculations here: My confusion lies in how 0.78 and 1.02 was gotten. Kindly assist. Edited by Nicole to note: This is referencing QA-6 (Chapter 6) study notes starting on page 28.

:)

Hi David, Kindly correct/clarify...(from QA-6 study notes-page 16) "Because the null hypothesis is either true or false, and we make a binary decision, we can commit one of two errors. To mistakenly reject a true null hypothesis is to commit a Type I error. We denote this Prob [Type I error |...