In the formula of “Best Hedge” in Investment Risk there is a negative sign. –W * Beta *var(p)/Var(i). What is the meaning of this negative sign? Do you always have to sell (short) the asset i?
No, only if the underlying is beta positive. (you'd go long if the underlying is beta negative). The var()/var() will always be positive, but beta can be negative (e.g., Andrew Lo's Dedicated Short Bias strategy has negative beta). If negative beta, you'd go long to hedge. David
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