mikey10011
New Member
David,
I am going through Example 18.8 in Jorian's FRM Handbook (p. 420).
I know that for a Bernoulli random variable
E[X] = p
Var[X] = p (1-p)
Why is E[XY] = Prob[X and Y]?
Apologies that I don't have Gujarati but could you refresh my memory of probability theory on how I should derive that from first principles (e.g., Jorian pp. 55-57)?
I am going through Example 18.8 in Jorian's FRM Handbook (p. 420).
I know that for a Bernoulli random variable
E[X] = p
Var[X] = p (1-p)
Why is E[XY] = Prob[X and Y]?
Apologies that I don't have Gujarati but could you refresh my memory of probability theory on how I should derive that from first principles (e.g., Jorian pp. 55-57)?