Is Delta-Gamma valuation a Local-valuation method?

Liming

New Member
Dear David,

Is Delta-Gamma valuation a Local-valuation method? I think it is definitely not a full valuation as it doesn't involve full repricing of portfolio in question. So to me, it seems to be a local valuation, just like delta-normal, with the exception of the added non-linearity. Thanks!

Cheers!
Liming
30/09/2009
 

David Harper CFA FRM

David Harper CFA FRM
Subscriber
Hi Liming,

Yes, I absolutely agree that delta-gamma is local valuation.
And, as Jorion shows, I think it's helpful to generalize to the Taylor series approximation such that delta-gamma is merely "truncated" Taylor that stops at the first two terms of the infinite Taylor:

Taylor: f(x) ~ f(a) + f'(a)(x-a) + f''(a)/2!*(x-a)^2 + f'''(a)/3!*(x-a)^3 + ...

so both the delta-gamma (e.g., options) are using the first two terms:

..for an option:
f(x) ~ f(a) + f[delta is 1st derivative] + f[gamma is 2nd derivative] + ignore the rest b/c it is too small to matter?

...and for a bond, the bond duration-convexity is really the same thing!
f(x) ~ f(a) + f[dollar duration is 1st derivative] + f[dollar convexity is 2nd derivative] + ignore the rest ..

it's not full revaluation because we are not re-pricing the instrument/portfolio, rather we are using the derivatives to estimate (approximate) the change
links here from ajsa's related query: http://forum.bionicturtle.com/viewthread/1670/
here somebody submitted a delta-gamma query example: http://forum.bionicturtle.com/viewthread/1840/
(or this is a delta-gamma-vega as two first derivatives and one 2nd derivative are employed to estimate change. But still a "local" as we did not re-price the option )

...and, just as you say, the gamma (or convexity) correction (or adjustment) will introduce non-linearity into the approximation. This is a good point b/c some mistakenly assume local = linear, but Jorion (p. 360 handbook) appropriately divides local valuation into two parts:
Local > Linear, and
Local > Non-linear (i.e., adds gamma and convexity)


i.e., delta by itself implies linearity, but local does not, just as you suggest!
Why local? because if we think about delta-gamma visually, the accuracy is better if our our "shock" is small

(finally, it's more than you asked but be careful about confusing delta-gamma with delta-normal; the "normal" in delta-normal refers to the assumption that the underlying risk factor is normally distributed, which is convenient but not required).

Thanks, David
 

David Harper CFA FRM

David Harper CFA FRM
Subscriber
Hi Ryan, sorry I can't currently find them (they appear to be over four years old, well before our forum was upgraded to Xenforo such that I can't use the numbers). Thanks,
 
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